Thoughts on mortal sin/venial sin

Discussion in 'Philosophy, Truth, and Ethics' started by Lowly Layman, Aug 30, 2015.

  1. Brigid

    Brigid Active Member Anglican

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    When I was in the RCC, I was taught that that was not a rebuke, but simply calling her "woman" as she was the New Eve.
     
  2. Rexlion

    Rexlion Well-Known Member

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    I think Brigid is correct, considering their theology.

    My own feeling is that Jesus was acting in obedience to His Father, and may have assumed that His mother should know where He was (and possibly a bit perplexed that she hadn't prayed and heard from the Father where He was). I do think it was a mild rebuke to call her "woman" rather than "Mother" particularly when He was only twelve; yet, being that He was the Son of God, I see no sin there.
     
  3. Religious Fanatic

    Religious Fanatic Well-Known Member

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    A man must obey his parents according to Jewish law, but a wife must obey her husband first and even though Christ was born of Mary as a virgin, his father's authority still mattered more.
     
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  4. Liturgyworks

    Liturgyworks Well-Known Member Anglican

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    I have always been taught that the word is an honorific in the first century usage, equivalent to calling someone Ma’am today.
     
  5. Liturgyworks

    Liturgyworks Well-Known Member Anglican

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    Indeed so. I am not advocating Novatianism, Donatism or Pelagianism, all closely related heresies; rather I subscribe to the Entire Sanctification, or Christian Perfection doctrine of John Wesley, and to Theosis, the Eastern soteriological model on which it is based.
     
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