I'm a little confused about some Anglican doctrine, specifically in the Episcopal Church (USA). I strongly oppose contraception. This is in keeping with the historical position of Christianity, up until the Lambeth Conference that approved it in some cases (which, of course, had a snowball effect). I believe that the openness to procreating life is one of the defining characteristics of marriage, which is primarily what makes homosexual "marriage" impossible. So, I have a question: if openness to life is not required in marriage (which the acceptance of contraception would seem to indicate), then why are (or maybe just "were"; I'm unsure) "married" same-sex couples in the ECUSA officially barred from having sexual relations? And if it is required, then why is homosexual "marriage" endorsed? Quote from a 1991 Convention resolution: http://www.episcopalarchives.org/cgi-bin/acts/acts_resolution.pl?resolution=1991-A104
This is the first time I have heard of the Episcopal Church prohibiting relations for married same sex couples. Admittedly, I am a recent convert and not the most informed Episcopalian, but can you please cite a source for this claim? And, are you seeking to understand something or wishing to stir dissent? I fear the latter which I would find most unwelcome.
See the quote I included, which says in one part: I'm not trying to stir dissent. I legitimately want to understand how this is rationalized. I know that the ECUSA (or TEC; however one wishes that I refer to it) is theologically liberal, but it has gotten to the point (and someone please correct me if I'm wrong) where it seems to be contradicting itself within the span of only two decades. I find this possibility very alarming.
The Church of England does not oppose contraception. It does not carry out same sex marriages and is banned by law from doing so. To the best of my knowledge it does not allow blessings of same sex couples.