To clarify: I'm 'ballparking' that 99%of the Israelis prior to Jesus' incarnation were tares, unbelievers held captive by a priesthood that emphasized the law (including tithes on the mint and dill, why do you suppose they emphasized that?) and that fell to profiteering (buying selling, exchanging currency) from every visitor to the Temple. And yes, there were far more apostles and disciples of Jewish background at the time of Pentecost than of any other, so it's not surprising that the early church became mostly people of Jewish descent, for the first few years. BTW, thank you for the small concession. In the end, God's children will all be there no matter how we've set forth definitions. Oh, and I asked two people at the parish this past Sunday what their view is. One is a deacon and the other is, I believe, holder of a Master's in theological studies. Both of them said without hesitation that they understand the church to have begun in the NT era, and both thought it was (so far as they knew) the normal Anglican concept. Just an anecdote.