Three Days and Three Nights in Matthew 12:40

If you want more info, then that's a question to better addressed with the author, not me.

 

Lowly Layman,
re: "If you want more info, then that's a question to better addressed with the author, not me."

In your previous post you provided a link that you said had an interesting discussion on the topic. Since the topic has to do with the commonality of forecasting or saying that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur, I assumed that you were saying that the "discussion" included the requested examples. Since it doesn't, I wonder why you gave the link?

 

To be frank, I wonder why you are so relentlessly pursuing an answer to your question. It seems to me, a casual observer, that @Lowly Layman was just trying to be helpful by providing additional information relevant to your rather specific concern. It almost seems like you actually want there to be no way of corroborating what you to seem to deem to be impossible to corroborate, for reasons you seem reluctant to reveal openly. Perhaps I'm wrong to be thinking that, but I can't help wondering.

 

Tiffy,
re: "To be frank, I wonder why you are so relentlessly pursuing an answer to your question. "

I'm merely curious as I told you previously.


re: "It seems to me, a casual observer, that @Lowly Layman was just trying to be helpful by providing additional information relevant to your rather specific concern."

But it wasn't relevant with regard to addressing the commonality of saying that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could have occurred.

 

Then you might have a long wait to get your question answered. As I said previously, if you have any luck with it, let us know. We will be interested to know what you manage to 'dig up'.

 

It was not meant to answer your question. I don't believe I addressed it to you. It was an article I offered in general to the forum. But if my involvement confuses you or distracts from the thread, I'll stay mum.

 

Lowly Layman,
re: "... if my involvement ... distracts from the thread, I'll stay mum.

OK, sounds good.

 

This is also not meant to answer the question, but it does tend to make the question unnecessary.

Information on Days and nights by Jewish reckoning:

 

Tiffy,
re: "This is also not meant to answer the question, but it does tend to make the question unnecessary."

Let me repeat the only issue of this topic: If it was common to say that a daytime or a night time would be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of a night time could occur, then there would have to be examples of such usage in order to legitemately say that it was common. Your link offers Esther as an example. However, it isn't an example because nothing in the account prohibits at least a portion of each one of the daytimes and at least a portion of each one of the night times.

 

I can't understand why you are wasting so much time on this. More to the point, I can't see why I am wasting so much of my time on it, either.

 

Tiffy,
re: "I can't understand why you are wasting so much time on this."

A few minutes here, a few minutes there. I don't see the problem.

 

Since it's been awhile, perhaps someone new visiting this topic may know of examples.

 

Four months into the new year may find someone new looking in on this topic who might have examples.

 

Point #5 in post #29 should be changed to read: "To account for the lack of a 3rd night, there may be some of those mentioned above who think that the Messiah was employing common figure of speech/colloquial language."

 

I favor the '5th day' narrative. But you might have a look at Adam Clarke's Commentary on Matt. 12:40. He mentions a couple of Jewish authorities. He also refers to the precedent set forth in Esther 4:16 and 5:1.

 

Rexlion,
re: "I favor the '5th day' narrative."

That would be an issue for a different topic.



re: "But you might have a look at Adam Clarke's Commentary on Matt. 12:40."

I've seen nothing in the Commentary which shows examples of where a daytime or a night time was said to be involved with an event when no part of a daytime or no part of the a night time could occur.



re: "He also refers to the precedent set forth in Esther 4:16 and 5:1."

Nothing in the Esther account precludes at least a portion of each one of 3 daytimes and at least a portion of each one of 3 night times.

 

rstrats I have been meaning to ask you.., are you pursuing any actual question, or do you just have some ax to grind?

 

My understanding is that the scripture indicates Esther fasted for day 1, night 1, day 2, night 2, and on day 3 she presented herself before the king. That would preclude all of night 3, wouldn't it? But of course it's an inference, so if you're looking for an absolutely unequivocal and airtight case, indeed Esther doesn't provide that.

You know, you could at least tell people 'thanks for trying to help' when they post things that they hope will help you. Just a suggestion.

 

anglican74,
re: "...are you pursuing any actual question..."

I thought that's what I've been doing. See point #6 in post #29.

 

Rexlion,
re: "... if you're looking for an absolutely unequivocal and airtight case, indeed Esther doesn't provide that."


I am and indeed it doesn't. Thanks for realizing that.