1 Corinthians 15:29 speaks of baptism for the dead: "what shall they do which are baptized for the dead, if the dead rise not at all? why are they then baptized for the dead?" Do you think this is referring to proxy baptism? If so, do you think is a viable use of the sacrament, extending grace to those who would be otherwise outside of God' s new covenant?
The Mormons use that verse to justify baptism of the dead, but I am not aware that any Christian Church has ever practiced it. Explanations regarding the verse in question don't seem to reach any universal conclusions on the matter.
Hi LL! What does the text mean by "baptized for the dead"? That's not quite the same as "baptism for the dead."
good point, what is the significaance of the difference in your mind? for the life of me, i cant make heads or tails of this verse. any insight would be quite appreciated.
perhaps St Paul is saying that being baptized in the name of Christ, if he is indeed unresurrected, as the people St Paul is refuting seem to be arguing. then it is baptism for one who is dead and has no power nor promise to raise again to new and everlasting life. in short, he's saying that if one takes away the truth of the resurrection, then what's the point of baptism at all? its just a thought. am i on the right track?
I guess it's as good an interpretation as any. However, I'm not a fan of CARM so I'm generally leary of eating fruit from a poisonous tree.