Arminianism Vs Calvinism in the Anglican Tradition

Discussion in 'Philosophy and Theology' started by Fotis Greece, Sep 15, 2013.

  1. Fotis Greece

    Fotis Greece New Member

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    Hmmm... Interesting topic to discuss. Both theological views had influenced the Church of England. Personaly I am an arminian. What are your thoughts on this topic. What is your position? What is the position of your church... What is the position of the Bible?...
     
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  2. Lowly Layman

    Lowly Layman Well-Known Member Anglican

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    Anglicanism has historically been influenced by both schools.
     
  3. Lowly Layman

    Lowly Layman Well-Known Member Anglican

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    i think the bible lends itself to both interpretations in certain places...and TEC takes all kinds so either is tolerated, as are many other schools.
     
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  4. The Hackney Hub

    The Hackney Hub Well-Known Member

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    Anglicanism is historically Reformed and Article XVII is monergistic and predestinarian. The Church of England accepted the Canons of Dort in the 17th c. Arminianism was considered heterodox in the C of E until the beginning of the gradual breakdown of discipline in said church beginning at the end of the 17th c.
     
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  5. Lowly Layman

    Lowly Layman Well-Known Member Anglican

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    lol, i think the Caroline Divines would have something to say about that. ;)
     
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  6. Fotis Greece

    Fotis Greece New Member

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    My friend pondering on the XVII article I realized that is not actually Reformed but rather Lutheran. It's not talking about damnation...
     
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  7. Old Christendom

    Old Christendom Well-Known Member

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    Article XVII does teach and describe Predestination to life. But it follows by logical necessity from the doctrine of election that if the elect are predestined to life, the reprobate - which are the remaining people - are predestined to damnation. The two go hand in hand. There are only two groups of people in this world: those who are the elect of God and those who are the reprobate. If God elects some to life, and He does, it logically follows that the others aren't elected to life and therefore have damnation as their inevitable end. The question then becomes just one of semantics or emphasis, as far as I can tell: either God positively predestines them to death (positive decree of reprobation) or He just passes over them in the decree of election (negative decree of reprobation), both of which can be maintained by orthodox believers.

    Furthermore, Article XVII describes election as unconditional ("called according to God's purpose by his Spirit working in due season") and the whole process of salvation as entirely by grace without any reference to synergism.
     
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